Surely you could not have learned to play the flute any better.
― ℁ (libcrypt), Wednesday, 22 October 2008 19:38 (seventeen years ago)
ditto the pink oboe, and the one-string bass.
― i fire doughnuts from a hooter to paralyse my enemies (grimly fiendish), Wednesday, 22 October 2008 19:56 (seventeen years ago)
(actually: i've been called a wanker in many different ways, and that is by far the most original. A++)
The counter-argument, of course, is that the modern-day Hallowe'en celebration in the UK is based almost entirely on the US interpretation of the event, and so we should be using their spelling.
Cop-out. I hear exactly the same argument from non-North-Americans who spell 'arse' the North American way.
― 2. Atheists incorrectly believe that they are not a religion. (Autumn Almanac), Wednesday, 22 October 2008 20:06 (seventeen years ago)
I think ass should be spelled the US way if attached to "dumb" or some other American-ish phrase like "Git yo' ... over herre"
But otherwise, yes, it looks silly.
― CharlieNo4, Thursday, 23 October 2008 10:34 (seventeen years ago)
i wonder what wonders i could have achieved if the part of my mind devoted to UTTERLY UNIMPORTANT FUCKING PEDANTRY was going to better use?
Wonder what wonders no longer:1) Pedantry is fun.
because
2) It irritates other people and makes you look bad, but not in a good way.
What could be better than that? Such pleasures are hard to come by in this deteriorated age of idle postmen/pub football fans/nu-style beanie hat wearers/fixed-wheel cyclists/aggressive drivers/intrusive landladies/snide colleagues/kfc dropping youths who assert their assertiveness by deliberately walking confrontationally on the pavement/people who complain about tourists/pubs that are not pubs/does anyone learn anything in schools these days anyway?/ditto universities/what happened to all the proper jobs, houses, people, music, books, films, clothes, haircuts, roads etc etc et fucking cetera.
See also pomposity.
― GamalielRatsey, Thursday, 23 October 2008 14:35 (seventeen years ago)
nu-style beanie hat wearers/fixed-wheel cyclists
you are the lost lovechild of mark E smith and i salute you.
― remorseful prober (grimly fiendish), Thursday, 23 October 2008 14:48 (seventeen years ago)
I hear exactly the same argument from non-North-Americans who spell 'arse' the North American way.
This makes total sense to me, actually, if you're using the word in a totally American way, like Charlie says: I'd certainly cringe to see Brits talking about grabbing some fish and a big-arse pile of chips.
(I'm not sure how else anyone would deploy that argument, unless they were under the impression Americans invented asses, an impression I guess I could imagine a British person developing.)
― nabisco, Thursday, 23 October 2008 17:43 (seventeen years ago)
It's in the pronunciation.
― 2. Atheists incorrectly believe that they are not a religion. (Autumn Almanac), Thursday, 23 October 2008 20:01 (seventeen years ago)
Genius makes playlists from songs in your iTunes library that go great together.
GREAT IS NOT AN ADVERB
To use Genius sidebar, you must also have turned on Genius, which makes playlists from songs in your library that go great together.
Genius is an exciting new feature for iPod, iPhone, and iTunes which makes playlists from songs in your iTunes library that go great together.
If you can make a Genius playlist in iTunes on your computer, then it is likely that there are not enough songs on your iPod or iPhone that go great with the desired songs.
― Rooty Hill v Licking Valley (Autumn Almanac), Saturday, 25 October 2008 22:51 (seventeen years ago)
grates.
― remorseful prober (grimly fiendish), Sunday, 26 October 2008 00:14 (seventeen years ago)
"Less than half of lenders" or "Fewer than half of lenders"? Is the countability of lenders negated by casting the whole thing as a fraction?
― Alba, Friday, 7 November 2008 11:26 (seventeen years ago)
Good question. I'd say no, and go for fewer. But context might decide for you?
― NOW WITH ADDED CAPS (grimly fiendish), Friday, 7 November 2008 11:28 (seventeen years ago)
This was discussed just over a year ago up-thread: 2 November 2007! I'd usually use "less", but agree that context decides.
― Eyeball Kicks, Friday, 7 November 2008 11:40 (seventeen years ago)
fewer than half of all lenders sounds best?
― darraghmac, Friday, 7 November 2008 11:41 (seventeen years ago)
I'd say "less" because it sounds less assy.
― Tracer Hand, Friday, 7 November 2008 11:52 (seventeen years ago)
They're individuals rather than a mass of goop, so I'd say fewer.
― GO BLACK DUDE FROM SPACE ♡♥♡♥♡♥♡♥♡♥♡ (Autumn Almanac), Friday, 7 November 2008 12:25 (seventeen years ago)
i'd say "less" because you're not talking about a specific number, just a fraction of a non-specified number.
it's the difference between "much" and "many", isn't it?
― Background Zombie (CharlieNo4), Friday, 7 November 2008 17:06 (seventeen years ago)
I just had the same thing with percentages.
It came in
less than 1% of the National Guard are Shia, but should be either
fewer than 1% of the National Guard are Shia
or
less than 1% of the National Guard is Shia
shouldn't it?
Or does the % change things?
― Jamie T Smith, Friday, 7 November 2008 17:18 (seventeen years ago)
I say less/is but admit that "less than 1" gets me confused because the number isn't 1, it's something between 0 and 1, and you say "None are" and "One is" - which to use???
― Eyeball Kicks, Friday, 7 November 2008 17:54 (seventeen years ago)
AFAIK, you only use "is" with "one".
― Black Seinfeld (HI DERE), Friday, 7 November 2008 17:55 (seventeen years ago)
is right i think - but if it were members of the guard...
less than 1% of the members of the National Guard are Shia
argh! brainwrong.
― Background Zombie (CharlieNo4), Friday, 7 November 2008 17:56 (seventeen years ago)
Isn't this an instance of the UK vs. US difference on singular-but-plural nouns?
― ᑥ ᑥ ᑥ (libcrypt), Friday, 7 November 2008 18:08 (seventeen years ago)
No. It depends what the verb relates to. In the first instance:
"less than 1% of the National Guard is Shia"= 1% is shia
in the second instance:
"less than 1% of the members of the Nationa Guard are Shia"= the members are shia
― AndyTheScot, Sunday, 9 November 2008 15:05 (seventeen years ago)
In the latter case - with "are" - I'd suggest that "fewer" would be more appropriate.
― Tracer Hand, Sunday, 9 November 2008 15:41 (seventeen years ago)
me too
― quincie, Sunday, 9 November 2008 17:05 (seventeen years ago)
I stand very much corrected, fewer sounds more correct. The distinction between less and fewer isn't one of singular and plural, however, but of countability. If you can count it, it's fewer (books, sheep etc), if you can't (and it is therefore an uncountable quantity, like "butter"), it's less. I can't read the above sentenceso that 'less' sounds entirely wrong though. 1% clearly makes it countable though, yes?
The two issues are separate - whether "Fewer/Less than 1% of the members" is correct, and whether "1% of the members is/are".
Fewer seems to be correct. So is it 1% is or 1% are?
― AndyTheScot, Sunday, 9 November 2008 17:26 (seventeen years ago)
Although, I've found at least one source (however dubious the title 'Grammar Girl' is, the explanation sounds, well... sound)...
"As for mathematical numbers (be it distances, temperatures or percentages), they are generally considered a certain *amount*, not a certain *number*, of something. 5 tonnes, for example, is a (really) huge amount *of milk*, not a large number of milk. Measuring something is, originally, not the same thing as counting something."
Which would suggest that it is "Less than 1%..."
But still doesn't solve the problem of "Less than 1% of the National Guard is/are Shia".
I'd plump for "Less than 1% of the National Guard are Shia".
― AndyTheScot, Sunday, 9 November 2008 17:39 (seventeen years ago)
QUESTION: The word "premises" as in "I went to visit the company's premises" is often used in the singular (i.e. one building or office). What if the company has more than one premises? How do I distinguish between these? I take it they're spelt the same, but I'm tempted to pronounce the plural as "prem-es-eeze"...
― the next grozart, Thursday, 13 November 2008 11:42 (seventeen years ago)
Premises is never singular, grammatically speaking, is it? I see no difference if they have several premises, either in writing or pronunciation. Like headquarters.
― Zelda Zonk, Thursday, 13 November 2008 11:46 (seventeen years ago)
Andy I think the issue is that "less than 1%" emphasizes the fraction (which comprises who knows how many people - we're using the uncountable word, "less"), which is singular; "fewer than 1%" emphasizes the countable people who make up that 1%, which would point toward a plural verb.
BTW grammarians: "Towards" or "toward"?
― Tracer Hand, Thursday, 13 November 2008 12:02 (seventeen years ago)
That is one I always have to check. I think "toward" is correct but -- in UK English, anyway -- "towards" has all but replaced it. (I'm not in the vicinity of my handy and trusted reference tomes, so I can't check right now.)
― grimly fiendish, Thursday, 13 November 2008 12:04 (seventeen years ago)
I vaguely remember that AP doesn't even consider "towards" to be a word, but like yours my reference materials are inaccessible
― Tracer Hand, Thursday, 13 November 2008 12:07 (seventeen years ago)
I mean Andy I know you say that "The distinction between less and fewer isn't one of singular and plural, however, but of countability." But one would never say "Less snow have fallen today than the day before." I'm struggling to think of cases where one says "less... are" or "fewer... is" (unless you're using "fewer" in a phrase that denotes an entire state of affairs, which can then be taken as a singular thing, i.e. "Fewer sycophants in the White House is a good thing, in general")
― Tracer Hand, Thursday, 13 November 2008 12:08 (seventeen years ago)
huh I remember that 'toward' isn't a word
― Manchego Bay (G00blar), Thursday, 13 November 2008 12:11 (seventeen years ago)
But one would never say "Less snow have fallen today than the day before."
I'm not sure if anyone suggested that you would. Correct English would be "less snow has fallen..." and "fewer penguins have fallen over...". Incorrect (but used very frequently) would be "less penguins have fallen over...".
― The Resistible Force (Nasty, Brutish & Short), Thursday, 13 November 2008 12:16 (seventeen years ago)
The Burchfield edition of Fowler's says "towards" is preferred in British English and "toward" in US English but with some variation on either side, and doesn't mention any controversy or historical change.
Which reminds me that I've been meaning to check up on "forward(s)", which I've had only partly-justified ideas about which I might have mistakenly used as a parallel to go for "toward": I tend to use "s" for the adverb only if it doesn't take any kind of object, which "toward(s)" always does; so "moving forwards", but "moving forward to...". However, while Fowler's notes a (different, not very specifically delineated) distinction, it says that the -s version has all but disappeared in all usages over the last century. Hmm...
(Usual "I am not a copy editor, or even someone capable of stringing a legible sentence together" disclaimer and apology for incoherence here)
grimly, what are the handy and trusted reference tomes for subeditors on this side of the Atlantic? I'm not sure any professionals use Fowler's Modern English Usage, much as I like dipping into it (though not so much the 90s edition I've quoted here, but the others are a little elderly for reference use).
― ..··¨ rush ~°~ push ~°~ ca$h ¨··.. (a passing spacecadet), Thursday, 13 November 2008 12:50 (seventeen years ago)
The Oxford Dictionary for Writers and Editors is the one I swear by (usually along the lines of "For FUCK'S SAKE, why is this not in it?") -- I'm pretty sure it's The Guardian's secondary style guide, too.
Another book I've found fantastically useful is a grammar and usage guide meant for non-native speakers ... it's one of these things I don't consult often, but which tends to settle arguments straight away when I do. As you might have guessed, I can't remember what it's called. Something like English Toolkit ... I'll check tomorrow when I'm back at the wordface.
We have a Fowler's on the desk, but you're right: nobody uses it ;)
― grimly fiendish, Thursday, 13 November 2008 12:58 (seventeen years ago)
I like The Cambridge Guide to English Usage by Pam Peters. It's probably on the descriptive end of things.
― Alba, Thursday, 13 November 2008 13:44 (seventeen years ago)
Typical Sunday-paper hack :) Fuck descriptive. I want something authoritative-sounding with which I can beat my colleagues round the head, and I want it NOW.
― grimly fiendish, Thursday, 13 November 2008 13:50 (seventeen years ago)
I tend to use "s" for the adverb only if it doesn't take any kind of object, which "toward(s)" always does; so "moving forwards", but "moving forward to...". However, while Fowler's notes a (different, not very specifically delineated) distinction, it says that the -s version has all but disappeared in all usages over the last century. Hmm...
Yeah, the only time I put an "s" at the end of "forward" is if I'm talking about e-mails.
I also generally use "toward" rather than "towards." Even if the latter isn't officially incorrect, it seems superfluous, like the non-word "anyways."
― jaymc, Thursday, 13 November 2008 14:14 (seventeen years ago)
http://www.seattlechoralcompany.org/Images/applause.jpg
― Background Zombie (CharlieNo4), Thursday, 13 November 2008 14:42 (seventeen years ago)
I'm not sure any professionals use Fowler's Modern English Usage, much as I like dipping into it (though not so much the 90s edition I've quoted here, but the others are a little elderly for reference use).
I do like (original) Fowler though. These three excerpts from the entry on French Words
Display of superior knowledge is as great a vulgarity as display ofsuperior wealth - greater indeed, inasmuch as knowledge should tendmore definitely than wealth towards discretion & good manners.
That is the guiding principle alike in the using & in the pronouncingof French words in English writing & talk. To use French words thatyou reader or hearer does not know or does not fully understand, topronounce them as if you were one of the select few to whom French issecond nature when he is not of those few (& it is ten thousand to onethat neither you nor he will be so), is inconsiderate & rude.
Every writer, however, who suspects himself of the bower-birdinstinct [that is to say display of obscure words or phrases intendedto impress] should remember that acquisitiveness & indiscriminatedisplay are pleasing to contemplate only in birds & savages &children.
In fact I sometimes find myself wandering down the street muttering 'birds, savages, children' to myself.
Anyone who uses the phrase 'moving forwards' for anything other than meaning 'locomotion in the direction you are facing' needs their nads put in a particle accelerator.
I have never said 'forward' or 'toward' and, no matter how incorrect or correct someone tells it is, am I ever likely to, I suspect.
And descriptivists can stay in their pleasantly manicured university garden ghetto and whistle Dixie from out they asses as for as I'm concerned. Fine if you are studying linguistics, but don't try and impose your pinko liberal/Germanic philological ideals on ME - I'll prescribe away and I'll thank the dictionaries I use to do the same, thank you very much.
Also, why is it wonderfully free thinking descriptivists are always so bloody pedantic about languages other than English? Superior acting patronising show offs.
Ahem. Parm me. Feeling a bit grouchy. Had to get it off my chest.
― GamalielRatsey, Thursday, 13 November 2008 14:43 (seventeen years ago)
Every writer, however, who suspects himself of the bower-bird instinct [that is to say display of obscure words or phrases intended to impress] should remember that acquisitiveness & indiscriminate display are pleasing to contemplate only in birds & savages & children
OK, that is absolutely beautiful. Almost as good as this:
needs their nads put in a particle accelerator
― grimly fiendish, Thursday, 13 November 2008 14:46 (seventeen years ago)
GamalielRatsey, I like your Fowler quotes, and your dislike of "moving forwards", but this
is complete bullshit.
Dictionaries are, of course, descriptive. They are (and have always been) based on citations of language in use, and these days are researched using computer corpora.
I've said this before on this thread, but all grammar is descriptive, really. It's just that descriptivists actually, you know, do some work, crunch some numbers, collect some data, whereas prescriptivists just make it up based on an imagined version of the language. (There's a brilliant quote that I can't quite remember that says, roughly, you wouldn't study biology by inventing a species.)
What is surprising is that the insights of corpus research have actually been so limited. That the prescriptivists got it so right without actually doing any proper research. This implies that grammatical variation between speakers is quote low, and that linguistic change is quite slow.
― Jamie T Smith, Thursday, 13 November 2008 15:25 (seventeen years ago)
Dictionaries are arguably descriptive, yes. But the chief sub telling you to look in the fucking dictionary and do what it says in there is as prescriptive as it gets.
And this:
all grammar is descriptive, really
I do see where you're coming from, but come on: from the point of view of 99% of the visitors to this thread, and 99.9% of people who have to worry about this kind of thing for a living, it just ain't.
― grimly fiendish, Thursday, 13 November 2008 15:30 (seventeen years ago)
the chief sub telling you to look in the fucking dictionary
The important point here, of course, being that he/the paper's style guide will tell you exactly which dictionary to look in!
― grimly fiendish, Thursday, 13 November 2008 15:31 (seventeen years ago)
Ha ha. Fair enough. But I think descriptivists (which is just after all another way of saying linguists - you'd be daft as a linguist if you said 'but they should have said it THIS way') sometimes forget that language is also a tool where we have to agree on common meanings. An entry that says that a word can be used one way or another way isn't particularly helpful when you use a word, in fact it renders that word unusuable.
After all dictionaries could have markers for erroneous as they do for vulgar or archaic speech.
As well as a phenomenon, language is a tool.
I was just fooling around with my high-hatting of linguists - it's an impressive science that has made remarkable discoveries. I just wish they'd stop telling me to be so wonderfully tolerant towards professional writers using words erroneously. Yes, erroneously.
― GamalielRatsey, Thursday, 13 November 2008 15:33 (seventeen years ago)
arguably?
That is HOW they are produced! Using EVIDENCE!
The idea that just making stuff up based on your own prejudices and the latin you learnt at boarding school is superior to ACTUALLY FUCKING BOTHERING to research how language is actually used is somehow MORE RIGOROUS just drives me demented.
Sorry.
― Jamie T Smith, Thursday, 13 November 2008 15:34 (seventeen years ago)
That post was for um... (counts fingers using toes) ^^^^.
Jamie T Smith.
Ooh, and again, another one ^.
― GamalielRatsey, Thursday, 13 November 2008 15:34 (seventeen years ago)