Is ending words with 'ised' versus 'ized' just a UK vs US thing?

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Was the killer referring to the stuff that melts and turns into water?

(Just let me know if it gets too lame.)

Fred Nerk (Fred Nerk), Friday, 16 January 2004 13:52 (twenty years ago) link

"Morse once solved on a murder on the basis that the killer had left a message using 'ise' instead of 'ize', concluding that he was dealing with someone badly educated"

Yes, it was viewed by the pedantic Dexter/Morse as a barbaric Americanism which would not be used by an English academic. Ironically, the reverse of the current assumption by many would-be English pedants that ize is the barbaric Americanism.

ArfArf, Friday, 16 January 2004 15:23 (twenty years ago) link

also program vs programme

Ed (dali), Friday, 16 January 2004 15:34 (twenty years ago) link

The z comes from the Latin izo ending, and is therefore sort of more correct in many words. That doesn't make America all correct, of course, as they tend to use the z on some where it hasn't the Latin roots to validate it, as opposed to the Brits who do the converse. I don't care, myself.

Martin Skidmore (Martin Skidmore), Friday, 16 January 2004 18:04 (twenty years ago) link


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